Worthwhile endeavor. :)
Since this has already been answered, I will just suggest that you read
the Lucent Routing Guide. They have several examples and one matches your
situation almost exactly.
> I have an ethernet network locally with all a Cisco (router-main) and
> Portmasters in area 0 that works fine. I then have a PPP link to a POP.
> The POP contains a Cisco (router-pop) and several Portmasters. The OSPF
> rules I am aware of state that....
>
> 1. All OSPF routers must contain an area 0.
> 2. All OSPF routers in an area must on the same network to send/receive
> broadcast OSPF packets.
>
> So what do I do with router-pop? I can't set it's link to the main site
> as 0, since it can't directly talk to the other Portmasters there.
>
> All the local Portmasters and the Cisco's ethernet interfaces are
> in area 0.
>
> Simple question... (I hope!:)
>
> The PPP link between the two Ciscos should be in area ?.
> The Ethernet interface of the remote-Portmasters and the remote Cisco
> should be in area ?.
>
> Thanks!
Chris...
-- What's the point?An NT server can be run by an idiot, and usually is. PGP fingerprint: 063FCE320681C336 78C164FC9B2F91EA - To unsubscribe, email 'majordomo@livingston.com' with 'unsubscribe portmaster-users' in the body of the message. Searchable list archive: <URL:http://www.livingston.com/Tech/archive/>